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CUET UG Economics · Paper 1

20 MCQs · Microeconomics 7, Macroeconomics 8, Indian Economic Development 5

Microeconomics, Macroeconomics and Indian Economic Development, which the 2026 syllabus added.

Tap an option to answer

Section 1 · Microeconomics

  1. Q1Microeconomics › Central Problems & PPCEasy

    A point lying inside the production possibility curve (PPC) of an economy shows that:

    Correct option Dsome resources are unemployed or used inefficiently

    Points on the PPC show the maximum output possible when resources are fully and efficiently employed.

    A point outside the PPC cannot be reached with the present resources and technology.

    A point inside the PPC means more of both goods could be produced, so some resources are idle (unemployed) or wasted.

    An increase in resources shifts the whole PPC outward; it is not shown by a point inside it.

    So a point inside the PPC shows unemployment or inefficient use of resources.

    The Fast Way

    Remember the three zones: on the PPC = efficient, inside = waste, outside = unattainable.

    Inside means more of both goods was possible, so resources are idle or misused.

    So the answer is: some resources are unemployed or used inefficiently.

  2. Q2Microeconomics › Demand & ElasticityEasy

    When the price of a good falls from ₹10 to ₹8 per unit, its quantity demanded rises from 40 units to 50 units. By the percentage method, the price elasticity of demand (ignoring the minus sign) is:

    Correct option A1.25

    Percentage change in quantity demanded =50−4040×100=25%= \frac{50 - 40}{40} \times 100 = 25\%.

    Percentage change in price =8−1010×100=−20%= \frac{8 - 10}{10} \times 100 = -20\%.

    Ed=25%−20%=−1.25E_d = \frac{25\%}{-20\%} = -1.25, so its magnitude is 1.25.

    As 1.25 > 1, demand is elastic.

    Trap: taking the new values (50 units and ₹8) as the base gives 0.8, which is wrong.

    The Fast Way

    Use Ed=ΔQΔP×PQE_d = \frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta P} \times \frac{P}{Q} with the original price and quantity.

    102×1040=5×14=1.25\frac{10}{2} \times \frac{10}{40} = 5 \times \frac{1}{4} = 1.25.

    So the elasticity is 1.25.

  3. Q3Microeconomics › Consumer EquilibriumMedium

    A consumer spends her income on only one good, X. The price of X is ₹5 per unit and the marginal utility of money is 4 utils per rupee. Her marginal utility (MU) schedule for X is given below.

    Units of XMU (utils)
    136
    230
    324
    420
    512

    How many units of X will she buy in equilibrium?

    Correct option B4 units

    In the one-commodity case, the consumer is in equilibrium when MUxMUm=Px\frac{MU_x}{MU_m} = P_x, that is, when the MU of the last unit, in rupees, equals its price.

    MU in rupees =MU4= \frac{MU}{4}: 9, 7.5, 6, 5 and 3 for units 1 to 5.

    Units 1 to 3 are worth more than ₹5 each, so she buys them; the 4th unit is worth exactly ₹5.

    The 5th unit is worth only ₹3, less than its price, so she stops at 4.

    So she buys 4 units.

    The Fast Way

    Convert the price into utils instead: 5×4=205 \times 4 = 20 utils.

    The unit whose MU is 20 utils is the 4th.

    So she buys 4 units.

  4. Q4Microeconomics › Production & CostsMedium

    The total cost (TC) schedule of a firm is given below.

    Output (units)TC (₹)
    030
    150
    266
    390
    4124

    The marginal cost of the 3rd unit and the average variable cost at 3 units are, respectively:

    Correct option A₹24 and ₹20

    Total fixed cost is the cost at zero output: TFC = ₹30.

    MC of the 3rd unit =TC3−TC2=90−66=24= TC_3 - TC_2 = 90 - 66 = 24, that is ₹24.

    TVC at 3 units =TC3−TFC=90−30=60= TC_3 - TFC = 90 - 30 = 60, so AVC=603=20AVC = \frac{60}{3} = 20, that is ₹20.

    Trap: 903=30\frac{90}{3} = 30 is average cost, not average variable cost; ₹60 is TVC, not MC.

    So the answer is ₹24 and ₹20.

    The Fast Way

    Read TFC at zero output, then two subtractions do it.

    MC3=90−66=24MC_3 = 90 - 66 = 24 and AVC3=90−303=20AVC_3 = \frac{90 - 30}{3} = 20.

    So the pair is ₹24 and ₹20.

  5. Q5Microeconomics › Supply & Producer's EquilibriumMedium

    A firm can sell any quantity at a fixed price of ₹10 per unit. Its marginal cost (MC) schedule is given below.

    Output (units)MC (₹)
    110
    27
    36
    48
    510
    613

    At what output is the producer in equilibrium?

    Correct option C5 units

    With a fixed price, MR = price = ₹10 for every unit.

    The producer is in equilibrium where MR = MC and MC is rising, so that MC exceeds MR beyond that output.

    MC = ₹10 at 1 unit and at 5 units.

    At 1 unit MC is falling: units 2 to 4 cost less than ₹10 each, so producing them adds to profit. This is not equilibrium.

    At 5 units MC = MR and MC is rising; the 6th unit costs ₹13 > ₹10, so producing it would cut profit.

    So equilibrium output is 5 units.

    The Fast Way

    Apply both conditions: MR = MC, and MC rising at that point.

    MR is ₹10; MC = 10 at 1 unit (falling) and at 5 units (rising).

    So the firm is in equilibrium at 5 units.

  6. Q6Microeconomics › Perfect CompetitionMedium

    A firm under perfect competition has a minimum average variable cost (AVC) of ₹12 and a minimum average cost (AC) of ₹18. If the market price is ₹15 and stays there, the firm will:

    Correct option Dproduce at a loss in the short run, and leave the industry in the long run

    Short run: the firm compares price with minimum AVC. At ₹15 the price is above the minimum AVC of ₹12, so the firm covers all its variable cost and part of its fixed cost; producing loses less than shutting down, where the whole fixed cost is lost.

    So in the short run it keeps producing, but at a loss, since ₹15 is below the minimum AC of ₹18.

    Long run: all costs are variable, and a firm stays only if price covers minimum AC.

    Since ₹15 < ₹18, the loss cannot be avoided, so the firm leaves the industry.

    So it produces at a loss now and exits in the long run.

    The Fast Way

    Shut-down rule: the short run compares price with min AVC, the long run with min AC.

    ₹15 > ₹12, so it produces now; ₹15 < ₹18, so it cannot last.

    So it produces at a loss in the short run and leaves in the long run.

  7. Q7Microeconomics › Market Equilibrium & Price ControlsMedium

    The market demand and supply functions of a good are Qd=100−2PQ_d = 100 - 2P and Qs=20+2PQ_s = 20 + 2P, where P is in ₹. If the government fixes a maximum price (price ceiling) of ₹15, the market will have:

    Correct option Ba shortage of 20 units

    Equilibrium: 100−2P=20+2P100 - 2P = 20 + 2P, so 4P=804P = 80, P=20P = 20 and Q=60Q = 60.

    The ceiling of ₹15 is below the equilibrium price of ₹20, so it binds.

    At ₹15: Qd=100−30=70Q_d = 100 - 30 = 70 and Qs=20+30=50Q_s = 20 + 30 = 50.

    Excess demand =70−50=20= 70 - 50 = 20 units, a shortage.

    Trap: 70−60=1070 - 60 = 10 compares with the old equilibrium quantity, not with what is supplied at ₹15.

    The Fast Way

    At a binding ceiling, plug the ceiling price straight into both functions.

    Qd=100−30=70Q_d = 100 - 30 = 70 and Qs=20+30=50Q_s = 20 + 30 = 50.

    So the market has a shortage of 20 units.

Section 2 · Macroeconomics

  1. Q8Macroeconomics › Money & BankingEasy

    Asked in CBSE Class 12 board 2026

    Money supply is a ______ variable, as it refers to the total volume of money held by the ______ at a particular point of time.

    Correct option Cstock, public

    Money supply is measured at a point of time, so it is a stock variable, not a flow.

    It counts only the money held by the public, that is, households, firms and institutions other than the money-creating sector.

    Money held by the government, the Reserve Bank of India and the commercial banks themselves is not part of money supply.

    So the blanks are 'stock' and 'public'.

    The Fast Way

    'At a particular point of time' means stock, which removes both flow options.

    Money supply excludes money held by banks and the government.

    So the answer is stock, public.

  2. Q9Macroeconomics › National IncomeEasy

    For a closed economy (with no foreign trade), which one of the following is correct?

    Correct option AGDP = GNP

    GNP = GDP + net factor income from abroad (NFIA).

    A closed economy has no transactions with the rest of the world, so NFIA = 0.

    Hence GNP = GDP.

    GDP + GNP = 0 is impossible, since both are positive.

    The Fast Way

    No foreign links means NFIA is zero.

    GNP=GDP+NFIA=GDP+0GNP = GDP + NFIA = GDP + 0.

    So GDP = GNP.

  3. Q10Macroeconomics › Balance of Payments & Exchange RateMedium

    Asked in CBSE Class 12 board 2026

    Assertion: Unilateral Transfers are recorded in the Current Account of the Balance of Payments (BoP) of a nation.

    Reason: Capital account records transactions which cause a change in the assets or liabilities of the country.

    Correct option BBoth the Assertion and the Reason are true, but the Reason does not explain the Assertion.

    Assertion: unilateral transfers (gifts, remittances, grants) are one-way receipts or payments that create no claim, and they are recorded in the current account. True.

    Reason: the capital account records transactions that change a country's assets or liabilities, such as investment, borrowing and lending. True.

    But the Reason describes the capital account; it says nothing about why transfers go to the current account.

    So both are true, but the Reason does not explain the Assertion.

    The Fast Way

    Test each part, then ask whether the Reason answers 'why' for the Assertion.

    Transfers are current account items (Assertion true); the capital account changes assets and liabilities (Reason true).

    The Reason is about a different account, so both are true but the Reason does not explain the Assertion.

  4. Q11Macroeconomics › Income Determination & MultiplierEasy

    Suppose for a given economy,

    S=−60+0.1YS = -60 + 0.1Y

    II = ₹4,000 crore

    (where S = Saving Function, Y = National Income and I = Investment Expenditure)

    Equilibrium level of income would be ₹ ______ crore.

    Correct option C40,600

    At equilibrium, planned saving = planned investment: S=IS = I.

    −60+0.1Y=4,000-60 + 0.1Y = 4{,}000.

    0.1Y=4,0600.1Y = 4{,}060, so Y=40,600Y = 40{,}600.

    Trap: ignoring the -60 gives ₹40,000 crore.

    So equilibrium income is ₹40,600 crore.

    The Fast Way

    Set S = I and divide by the MPS in one step.

    Y=4,000+600.1=40,600Y = \frac{4{,}000 + 60}{0.1} = 40{,}600.

    So equilibrium income is ₹40,600 crore.

  5. Q12Macroeconomics › National IncomeMedium

    From the following data, calculate National Income (NNP at factor cost).

    Item₹ crore
    Private final consumption expenditure800
    Government final consumption expenditure200
    Gross domestic capital formation300
    Net exports(-) 20
    Consumption of fixed capital50
    Net indirect taxes70
    Net factor income from abroad(-) 10

    Correct option D₹1,150 crore

    GDPMPGDP_{MP} = PFCE + GFCE + GDCF + net exports =800+200+300−20=1,280= 800 + 200 + 300 - 20 = 1{,}280.

    NDPFC=GDPMPNDP_{FC} = GDP_{MP} - depreciation - net indirect taxes =1,280−50−70=1,160= 1{,}280 - 50 - 70 = 1{,}160 (domestic income).

    NNPFC=NDPFC+NFIA=1,160+(−10)=1,150NNP_{FC} = NDP_{FC} + NFIA = 1{,}160 + (-10) = 1{,}150.

    Trap: stopping at ₹1,160 crore leaves out NFIA, and adding 10 instead of subtracting it gives ₹1,170 crore.

    So National Income is ₹1,150 crore.

    The Fast Way

    Add the four spending items, then subtract everything that separates them from NNP at factor cost, in one line.

    800+200+300−20−50−70−10=1,150800 + 200 + 300 - 20 - 50 - 70 - 10 = 1{,}150.

    So National Income is ₹1,150 crore.

  6. Q13Macroeconomics › Government BudgetMedium

    From the following budget data of a government, find the primary deficit.

    Item₹ crore
    Revenue receipts400
    Revenue expenditure500
    Capital expenditure200
    Non-debt creating capital receipts50
    Interest payments60

    Correct option A₹190 crore

    Total expenditure =500+200=700= 500 + 200 = 700.

    Fiscal deficit = total expenditure - (revenue receipts + non-debt creating capital receipts) =700−(400+50)=250= 700 - (400 + 50) = 250.

    Primary deficit = fiscal deficit - interest payments =250−60=190= 250 - 60 = 190.

    Trap: ₹250 crore is the fiscal deficit, ₹310 crore adds interest instead of subtracting it, and ₹40 crore is revenue deficit minus interest.

    So the primary deficit is ₹190 crore.

    The Fast Way

    Primary deficit = all spending except interest, minus all receipts that are not borrowing.

    (500+200−60)−(400+50)=640−450=190(500 + 200 - 60) - (400 + 50) = 640 - 450 = 190.

    So the primary deficit is ₹190 crore.

  7. Q14Macroeconomics › Money & BankingMedium

    Consider these statements about the monetary policy tools of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

    I. A rise in the repo rate makes borrowing from the RBI costlier for commercial banks.

    II. To control inflation, the RBI buys government securities in the open market.

    III. A cut in the cash reserve ratio raises the credit-creating capacity of commercial banks.

    IV. The reverse repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks.

    Which of the statements are correct?

    Correct option BI and III only

    I is correct: the repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends to banks, so a higher repo rate raises banks' cost of borrowing.

    II is wrong: to control inflation the RBI sells securities, which draws money out of the banks; buying securities adds money.

    III is correct: a lower CRR frees reserves, so banks can lend more and create more credit.

    IV is wrong: the reverse repo rate is the rate at which the RBI borrows from banks, that is, the rate banks earn on funds parked with the RBI.

    So only I and III are correct.

    The Fast Way

    Check the two usual traps first: the direction of open market operations and the repo versus reverse repo definitions.

    II is wrong (inflation needs a sale of securities) and IV is wrong (reverse repo is the RBI borrowing), so every option with II or IV dies.

    So the answer is I and III only.

  8. Q15Macroeconomics › Income Determination & MultiplierHard

    In an economy, the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8. The economy is in equilibrium at an income of ₹4,000 crore, while full-employment income is ₹5,000 crore. By how much does aggregate demand fall short of the level needed for full-employment equilibrium (the deflationary gap)?

    Correct option A₹200 crore

    Investment multiplier k=11−MPC=10.2=5k = \frac{1}{1 - MPC} = \frac{1}{0.2} = 5.

    Income must rise by 5,000−4,000=1,0005{,}000 - 4{,}000 = 1{,}000 crore to reach full employment.

    The rise in aggregate demand needed =ΔYk=1,0005=200= \frac{\Delta Y}{k} = \frac{1{,}000}{5} = 200 crore.

    So the deflationary gap is ₹200 crore.

    Trap: ₹1,000 crore is the gap in output, not the shortfall in aggregate demand.

    The Fast Way

    Skip the multiplier: the gap in demand is MPS times the gap in income.

    MPS =1−0.8=0.2= 1 - 0.8 = 0.2, and income is short by 1,000 crore.

    0.2×1,000=2000.2 \times 1{,}000 = 200, so demand falls short by ₹200 crore.

Section 3 · Indian Economic Development

  1. Q16Indian Economic Development › Indian Economy 1950-1990Easy

    In the post-independence era, the policymakers of India adopted an economic system that fundamentally implies the coexistence of ______ and ______.

    Correct option Cpublic and private sector

    After independence India chose a mixed economy, combining features of capitalism and socialism.

    In a mixed economy the public sector and the private sector work side by side.

    The state took charge of heavy and basic industries, while the private sector was allowed in the remaining areas.

    So the system implies the coexistence of the public and private sector.

    The Fast Way

    'Coexistence' in India's economic system is the definition of a mixed economy.

    A mixed economy means state and private ownership together.

    So the answer is public and private sector.

  2. Q17Indian Economic Development › Rural DevelopmentEasy

    Asked in CBSE Class 12 board 2026

    Self-Help Groups (SHGs) have emerged to fill the gap in the formal credit system as they ______.

    Correct option DGenerally provide collateral-free credit to their members

    Formal lenders usually ask for collateral, which poor rural households do not have.

    SHGs pool small savings of their members (thrift in small proportions) and lend from this pool.

    Their loans are generally given without collateral, at reasonable interest, and repaid in small instalments.

    This is how SHGs fill the gap left by the formal credit system.

    So they generally provide collateral-free credit to their members.

    The Fast Way

    Ask what the formal system fails at for the rural poor: it demands collateral.

    SHGs lend without collateral; 'high interest' and 'larger' thrift are wrong.

    So the answer is collateral-free credit to their members.

  3. Q18Indian Economic Development › EmploymentEasy

    Asked in CBSE Class 12 board 2026

    The following table shows the distribution of population and workers in a village:

    Total populationPeople willing and able to workPeople employed
    20001200800

    The Worker-Population ratio for the village would be ______%.

    Correct option B40

    Worker-population ratio =number of workerstotal population×100= \frac{\text{number of workers}}{\text{total population}} \times 100.

    =8002000×100=40%= \frac{800}{2000} \times 100 = 40\%.

    Trap: the 1,200 people willing and able to work form the labour force; 12002000=60%\frac{1200}{2000} = 60\% is the labour force participation rate, not the worker-population ratio.

    So the ratio is 40%.

    The Fast Way

    Worker-population ratio counts only those actually employed.

    8002000=0.4\frac{800}{2000} = 0.4.

    So the ratio is 40%.

  4. Q19Indian Economic Development › Liberalisation, Privatisation & GlobalisationEasy

    Arrange in the order in which they happened:

    I. Establishment of the World Trade Organization (WTO)

    II. Launch of the New Economic Policy in India

    III. Adoption of the Industrial Policy Resolution in India

    IV. Introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India

    Correct option CIII, II, I, IV

    III: the Industrial Policy Resolution was adopted in 1956.

    II: the New Economic Policy of liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation was launched in 1991.

    I: the WTO was founded in 1995 as the successor to GATT.

    IV: GST was introduced in July 2017.

    So the order is III, II, I, IV.

    The Fast Way

    Anchor the dates: IPR 1956, New Economic Policy 1991, WTO 1995, GST 2017.

    Only two options start with III and end with IV, and the 1991 policy came before the 1995 WTO.

    So the order is III, II, I, IV.

  5. Q20Indian Economic Development › India and Its NeighboursEasy

    Asked in CBSE Class 12 board 2026

    Arrange the following events of Pakistan in correct chronological order:

    I. Nationalisation of capital goods industries

    II. Establishment of Pakistan

    III. Introduction of economic reforms

    IV. Announcement of First Five Year Plan

    Correct option DII, IV, I, III

    II. Pakistan was established in 1947.

    IV. Pakistan announced its First Five Year Plan in 1956.

    I. Capital goods industries were nationalised in the 1970s.

    III. Economic reforms were introduced in 1988.

    So the order is II, IV, I, III.

    The Fast Way

    The country's birth must come first, and only one option starts with II.

    Check it: 1947, 1956, the 1970s, 1988.

    So the order is II, IV, I, III.

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